Fix then Let be sup in in and be inf in and be inf in
clearly and
from the previous question we have seen
if and
hence
No, Let be any bounded function which is not Riemann integrable
let be a constant and be a constant sup can be Dirichlet function
This is a counter example proving the statement false
For any as between any 2 real numbers there exist a irrational number and f(irrational number)=0 hence inf of any sub interval is 0
lets focus of ε
Let be
let be